PPGS Test 7

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?

(Refer to Figure 23.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

8. (Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the “FM (FROM) Group” is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from

(Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft`s

The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

V(NO) is defined as the

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?

(Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.

OAT: Std
Pressure altitude: Sea level
Takeoff weight: 2,700 lb
Headwind component: Calm

GIVEN:

.                                                     WEIGHT       ARM             MOMENT
.                                                         (LB)              (IN)               (LB-IN)
Empty weight                               1,495.0         101.4            151,593.0
Pilot and passengers                    380.0            64.0              —
Fuel (30 gal usable-no reserve)        —              96.0              —

The CG is located how far aft of datum?

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

(Refer to Figure 28, illustration 4.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station?

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

The definition of nighttime is

27, (Refer to Figure 71, area 4 and Legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping operations at Lincoln Regional/ Harder (LHM) Airport, refer to

(Refer to Figure 25, area 5.) The VOR is tuned to the VOR-DME at the Dallas-Fort Worth airport. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft’s position from the VOR-DME?

29, While operating in Class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

(Refer to Figure 23.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 320° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)?

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

(Refer to Figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are

(Refer to Figure 68.) The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents

Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?

When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

(Refer to Figure 25, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a

(Refer to Figure 22, area 2; and Figure 31). At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

40. When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

(Refer to Figure 35.) Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with full throttle at 10,500 feet with a temperature of 36 degrees F above standard?

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

(Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the total distance required to land.

OAT                                         90°F
Pressure altitude             3,000 ft
Weight                               2,900 lb
Headwind component          10 kts
Obstacle                                   50 ft

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?

(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?

(Refer to Figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight,

Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?

(Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50°F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?

(Refer to Figure 34.) Determine the moment with the following data:

WEIGHT (LB)          MOM/1000

Empty weight                        1,350                      51.5
Pilot and front passenger      340                   ____
Fuel (std tanks)                  Capacity                ____
Oil, 8 qt                                 _____                 ____

(Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as