PPGS Test 10

1. Question

[3842] (Refer to figure 52.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

a) to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 36.

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b) to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35; to the left on Runway 36.

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c) to the right on Runways 14 – 32.

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2. Question

[3455] When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state

a) whether they intend to fly VFR only.

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b) that they possess a current pilot certificate.

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c) the full name and address of the formation commander.

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3. Question

[3065] According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

a) be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.

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b) not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

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c) not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

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4. Question

[3529-3, 9-24] How far will an aircraft travel in 2 ½ minutes with a ground speed of 98 knots?

1. [3529-3, 9-24] How far will an aircraft travel in 2 ½ minutes with a ground speed of 98 knots?

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b) 3.35 NM.

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c) 4.08 NM.

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5. Question

[3246] What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?

a) Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades.

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b) Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.

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c) Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of the propeller in the thinner air.

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6. Question

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Antiauthority”?

a) Rules do not apply in this situation.

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b) I know what I am doing.

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c) Follow the rules.

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7. Question

[3226] The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

a) decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.

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b) decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

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c) increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

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8. Question

[3006] Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

a) Va.

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b) Vlo.

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c) Vne.

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9. Question

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

a) flashing red.

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b) steady red.

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c) alternating red and green.

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10. Question

[3479] (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?

a) 12th 1800Z to 13th 2400Z.

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b) 12th at 1700Z.

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c) 1218Z to 1323Z.

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11. Question

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it

a) one time within four seconds.

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b) three times within three seconds.

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c) five times within five seconds.

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12. Question

[3840] (Refer to figure 52.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?

a) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.

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b) Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.

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c) Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.

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13. Question

[3955-1] When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

a) may continue taxiing.

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b) should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.

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c) should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.

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14. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

a) 6 calendar months.

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b) 12 calendar months.

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c) 24 calendar months.

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15. Question

[3132, 4-20] What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

a) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.

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b) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

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c) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

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16. Question

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would

a) experience avionics equipment failure.

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b) probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.

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c) probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

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17. Question

[3467] (See METAR below.) What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?

SPECI KMDW 121856Z 32005KT 1 1/2SM RA OVC007 17/16 A2980 RMK RAB35

a) Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, rain.

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b) Sky 7000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, heavy rain.

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c) Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2SM, with rain.

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18. Question

[3205, 1-9] What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?

a) Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

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b) Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.

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c) Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.

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19. Question

[3601, 9-45] (Refer to figure 20, area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

a) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

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b) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.

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c) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

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20. Question

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?

a) Clearance delivery.

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b) Tower, just before takeoff.

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c) Ground control, on initial contact.

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21. Question

[3570, 10-7] (Refer to Figure 26, areas 4 and 2; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport. Which VOR indication is correct?

a) 2.

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b) 5.

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c) 8.

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22. Question

[3243-1, 2-11] To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

a) fuel strainer drain.

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b) lowest point in the fuel system.

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c) fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

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23. Question

[3577, 10-5] (Refer to Figure 28, illustration 4.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station?

a) South.

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b) East.

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c) North.

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24. Question

[3495] What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?

a) Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area.

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b) Moderate or severe turbulence.

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c) Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.

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25. Question

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

a) August 10, 3 years later.

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b) August 31, 3 years later.

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c) August 31, 5 years later.

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26. Question

[3255] How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

a) Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

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b) Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.

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c) Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

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27. Question

[3034] To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in

a) the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

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b) the same type of aircraft to be used.

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c) any aircraft.

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28. Question

[3845] When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as

a) hyperventilation.

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b) aerosinusitis.

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c) aerotitis.

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29. Question

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: “TRAFFIC 10 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND…” Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a) Northwest.

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b) Northeast.

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c) Southwest.

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30. Question

[3550, 9-32] (Refer to figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots. The magnetic variation is 6° West.

a) 209°.

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b) 230°.

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c) 212°.

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31. Question

[3568, 9-13] (Refer to Figure 26.) Determine the magnetic course from Tomlinson Airport (area 1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).

a) 149°.

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b) 154°.

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c) 159°.

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32. Question

[3691] (Refer to figure 37.) Determine the total distance required to land.
OAT 90°F
Pressure altitude 3,000 ft
Weight 2,900 lb
Headwind component 10 kts
Obstacle 50 ft

a) 1,450 feet.

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b) 1,550 feet.

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c) 1,725 feet.

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33. Question

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

a) Enrich the fuel mixture.

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b) Increase the RPM.

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c) Reduce the airspeed.

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34. Question

[3683, 8-42] (Refer to figure 36.) What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots?

a) 19 knots.

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b) 23 knots.

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c) 30 knots.

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35. Question

[3462, 7-4] (Refer to figure 12.) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?

a) All.

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b) KINK, KBOI, and KJFK.

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c) KINK, KBOI, and KLAX.

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36. Question

(Refer to figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a

a) right-quartering headwind.

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b) left-quartering headwind.

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c) right-quartering tailwind.

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37. Question

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

a) 90 days.

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b) 12 calendar months.

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c) 24 calendar months.

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38. Question

[3829-3, 1-24] How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

a) Inward, upward, and around each tip.

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b) Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.

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c) Outward, upward, and around each tip.

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39. Question

[3270] (Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?

a) 65 KTS.

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b) 100 KTS.

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c) 165 KTS.

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40. Question

[3599, 9-40] (Refer to figure 25, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

a) at the surface.

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b) 3,200 feet MSL.

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c) 4,000 feet MSL.

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41. Question

An AIRMET Sierra would indicate the possibility of

a) Mountain obscuration or IFR.

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b) High winds in mountainous areas.

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c) Thunderstorms with strong winds.

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42. Question

When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

a) When at low angles of attack.

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b) When at high angles of attack.

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c) When at high airspeeds.

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43. Question

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

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b) The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

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c) The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

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44. Question

[3829, 1-25] When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

a) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.

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b) below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

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c) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

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45. Question

[3560, 10-6] (Refer to Figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?

a) 101°.

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b) 108°.

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c) 281°.

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46. Question

[3664] Given the following conditions:
WEIGHT                  ARM          MOMENT
(LB) (IN)              (LB-IN)
Empty weight                   1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0
Pilot and passengers 380.0 64.0 ——-
Fuel (30 gal usable
no reserve) — 96.0 ——-
The CG is located how far aft of datum?

a) CG 92.44.

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b) CG 94.01.

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c) CG 119.8.

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47. Question

[3623, 9-45] (Refer to figure 26, area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is

a) Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace.

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b) Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.

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c) Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.

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48. Question

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

a) Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

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b) Recreational Pilot Certificate.

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c) Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

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49. Question

[3283-1] What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

a) The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

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b) The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

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c) The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

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50. Question

[3405] What is a characteristic of stable air?

a) Stratiform clouds.

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b) Unlimited visibility.

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c) Cumulus clouds.

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51. Question

[3086] With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

a) taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

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b) all flight conditions.

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c) flight in turbulent air.

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52. Question

The definition of nighttime is

a) sunset to sunrise.

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b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

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c) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

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53. Question

[3210, 1-11] An airplane said to be inherently stable will

a) be difficult to stall.

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b) require less effort to control.

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c) not spin.

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54. Question

(Refer to Figure 23.) How would you contact the Anderson FSS near area 1?

a) Contact FSS using the Allendale VOR over the 116.7 frequency.

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b) Contact FSS using the Allendale VOR with the communication radio tuned to 122.1 and the navigation radio tuned to 116.7.

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c) Contact FSS using the Allendale VOR with the communication radio tuned to 116.7 and the navigation radio tuned to 122.1.

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55. Question

[3484] (Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes

a) overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

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b) overcast at 200 feet with a 40% probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

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c) overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

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56. Question

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

a) 1,000 feet.

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b) 2,000 feet.

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c) 1 mile.

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57. Question

[3419] What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

a) Towering cumulus.

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b) Cumulonimbus.

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c) Nimbostratus.

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58. Question

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2020. The next inspection will be due no later than

a) September 30, 2021.

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b) September 1, 2022.

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c) September 30, 2022.

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59. Question

[3398] The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the

a) dewpoint.

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b) air temperature.

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c) stability of the air.

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60. Question

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?

a) Contact the tower and request permission to enter.

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b) Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.

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c) Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.

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Sunday	9 AM - 5 PM

Monday	8 AM - 5 PM
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